ICC 2011 World Cup Teams and Schedule

ICC 2011 World Cup Teams and Schedule

ICC 2011 Cricket World Cup will be held during February and March 2011 at Bangladesh, India and Sri Lanka. The co-hosts Bangladesh will clash with India in the inaugural match which has to take place on 19 February 2011 at Sher e Bangla National Stadium in Mirpur, Bangladesh.

Groups:

A: Australia, Pakistan, New Zealand, Sri Lanka, Zimbabwe, Canada, Kenya

B: India, South Africa, England, West Indies, Bangladesh, Ireland, Netherlands

Date	Match Details	Time		Venue
		GMT	IST	Ground	City
Feb 19 -- Sat	Bangladesh v India, 1st Match, Group B	8:30	14:00	Sher-e-Bangla Cricket Stadium	Dhaka
Feb 20 -- Sun	New Zealand v Kenya, 2nd Match,Group A	4:00	9:30	MA. Chidambaram Stadium	Chennai
Feb 20 -- Sun	Sri Lanka v Canada, 3rd Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	Hambantota International Cricket	Hambantota
Feb 21 -- Mon	Australia v Zimbabwe, 4th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	Sardar Patel Stadium	Ahmedabad
Feb 22 -- Tue	England v Netherlands, 5th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Vidarbha Cricket Association Stadium	Nagpur
Feb 23 -- Wed	Pakistan v Kenya, 6th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	Hambantota International Cricket	Hambantota
Feb 24 -- Thu	South Africa v West Indies, 7th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Feroz Shah Kotla	Delhi
Feb 25 -- Fri	Bangladesh v Ireland, 8th Match, Group B	3:30	9:00	Sher-e-Bangla Cricket Stadium	Dhaka
Feb 25 -- Fri	Australia v New Zealand, 9th Match, Group A	9:00	14:30	Vidarbha Cricket Association Stadium	Nagpur
Feb 26 -- Sat	Sri Lanka v Pakistan, 10th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Feb 27 -- Sun	India v England, 11th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Eden Gardens	Kolkata
Feb 28 -- Mon	Zimbabwe v Canada, 12th Match,Group A	4:00	9:30	Vidarbha Cricket Association Stadium	Nagpur
Feb 28 -- Mon	West Indies v Netherlands, 13th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Feroz Shah Kotla	Delhi
Mar 01 -- Tue	Sri Lanka v Kenya, 14th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Mar 02 -- Wed	England v Ireland, 15th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	M. Chinnaswamy Stadium	Bengaluru
Mar 03 -- Thu	South Africa v Netherlands, 16th Match, Group B	4:00	9:30	Punjab Cricket Association Stadium	Chandigarh
Mar 03 -- Thu	Pakistan v Canada, 17th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Mar 04 -- Fri	New Zealand v Zimbabwe, 18th Match, Group A	4:00	9:30	Sardar Patel Stadium	Ahmedabad
Mar 04 -- Fri	Bangladesh v West Indies, 19th Match, Group B	8:30	14:00	Sher-e-Bangla Cricket Stadium	Dhaka
Mar 05 -- Sat	Sri Lanka v Australia, 20th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Mar 06 -- Sun	England v South Africa, 21st Match, Group B	4:00	9:30	MA. Chidambaram Stadium	Chennai
Mar 06 -- Sun	India v Ireland, 22nd Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	M. Chinnaswamy Stadium	Bengaluru
Mar 07 -- Mon	Kenya v Canada, 23rd Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	Feroz Shah Kotla	Delhi
Mar 08 -- Tue	Pakistan v New Zealand, 24th Match, Group A	9:00	14:30	Pallekele International Cricket Stadium	Pallekele
Mar 09 -- Wed	India v Netherlands, 25th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Feroz Shah Kotla	Delhi
Mar 10 -- Thu	Sri Lanka v Zimbabwe, 26th Match, Group A	9:00	14:30	Pallekele International Cricket Stadium	Pallekele
Mar 11 -- Fri	West Indies v Ireland, 27th Match, Group B	4:00	9:30	Punjab Cricket Association Stadium	Chandigarh
Mar 11 -- Fri	Bangladesh v England, 28th Match, Group B	8:30	14:00	Chitagong Divisional Stadium	ChitagongDivision
Mar 12 -- Sat	India v South Africa, 29th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Vidarbha Cricket Association Stadium	Nagpur
Mar 13 -- Sun	New Zealand v Canada, 30th Match, Group A	4:00	9:30	Wankhede Stadium	Mumbai
Mar 13 -- Sun	Australia v Kenya, 31st Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	M. Chinnaswamy Stadium	Bengaluru
Mar 14 -- Mon	Bangladesh v Netherlands, 32nd Match, Group B	3:30	9:00	Chitagong Divisional Stadium	ChitagongDivision
Mar 14 -- Mon	Pakistan v Zimbabwe, 33rd Match, Group A	9:00	14:30	Pallekele International Cricket Stadium	Pallekele
Mar 15 -- Tue	South Africa v Ireland, 34th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	Eden Gardens	Kolkata
Mar 16 -- Wed	Australia v Canada, 35th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	M. Chinnaswamy Stadium	Bengaluru
Mar 17 -- Thu	England v West Indies, 36th Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	MA. Chidambaram Stadium	Chennai
Mar 18 -- Fri	Ireland v Netherlands, 37th Match, Group B	4:00	9:30	Eden Gardens	Kolkata
Mar 18 -- Fri	Sri Lanka v New Zealand, 38th Match, Group A	9:00	14:30	Wankhede Stadium	Mumbai
Mar 19 -- Sat	Bangladesh v South Africa, 39th Match, Group B	3:30	9:00	Sher-e-Bangla Cricket Stadium	Dhaka
Mar 19 -- Sat	Australia v Pakistan, 40th Match,Group A	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Mar 20 -- Sun	Zimbabwe v Kenya, 41st Match,Group A	4:00	9:30	Eden Gardens	Kolkata
Mar 20 -- Sun	India v West Indies, 42nd Match, Group B	9:00	14:30	MA. Chidambaram Stadium	Chennai
Mar 23 -- Wed	TBC v TBC, First quarter-final	8:30	14:00	Sher-e-Bangla Cricket Stadium	Dhaka
Mar 24 -- Thu	TBC v TBC, Second quarter-final	9:00	14:30	Sardar Patel Stadium	Ahmedabad
Mar 25 -- Fri	TBC v TBC, Third quarter-final	8:30	14:00	Sher-e-Bangla Cricket Stadium	Dhaka
Mar 26 -- Sat	TBC v TBC, Fourth quarter-final	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Mar 29 -- Tue	TBC v TBC, First semi-final	9:00	14:30	R. Premadasa Stadium	Colombo
Mar 30 -- Wed	TBC v TBC, Second semi-final	9:00	14:30	Punjab Cricket Association Stadium	Chandigarh
Apr 02 -- Sat	TBC v TBC, Final	9:00	14:30	Wankhede Stadium	Mumbai

About VLSI- Physical design

In integrated circuit design, physical design is a step in the standard design cycle which follows after the circuit design. At this step, circuit representations of the components (devices and interconnects) of the design are converted into geometric representations of shapes which, when manufactured in the corresponding layers of materials, will ensure the required functioning of the components. This geometric representation is called integrated circuit layout. This step is usually split into several sub-steps, which include both design and verification and validation of the layout.

Modern day Integrated Circuit (IC) design is split up into Front-end design using HDL's, Verification and Back-end Design or Physical Design.
The next step after Physical Design is the Manufacturing process or Fabrication Process that is done in the Wafer Fabrication Houses. Fab-houses fabricate designs onto silicon dies which are then packaged into ICs.

Each of the phases mentioned above have Design Flows associated with them. These Design Flows lay down the process and guide-lines/framework for that phase. Physical Design flow uses the technology libraries that are provided by the fabrication houses. These technology files provide information regarding the type of Silicon wafer used, the standard-cells used, the layout rules, etc.

Technologies are commonly classified according to minimal feature size. Standard sizes, in the order of miniaturization, are 2μm, 1μm , 0.5μm , 0.35μm, 0.25μm, 180nm, 130nm, 90nm, 65nm, 45nm, 28nm, 22nm, 18nm... They may be also classified according to major manufacturing approaches: n-Well process, twin-well process, SOI process, etc.

Electronic design automation(EDA)

Electronic design automation (EDA or ECAD) is a category of software tools for designing electronic systems such as printed circuit boards and integrated circuits. The tools work together in a design flow that chip designers use to design and analyze entire semiconductor chips.

Engineering Services Examination-2011-UPSC

Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Engineering Services Examination-2011

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Engineering Services Examination, 2011 from 14th May, 2011 for recruitment to the posts of Indian Engineering Service. The Examination will be held at various centres across the country.

Eligibility:

• Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 1st August, 2011. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
• Educational Qualification: Candidate must hold a degree in Engineering or equivalent. Provided that a candidate applying for the posts of Indian Naval Armament Service (Electronics Engineering Posts) and Engineer Group A in Wireless Planning & Coordination Wing/Monitoring Organisation may possess M.Sc.Degree or its equivalent with Wireless Communication, Electronics, Radio Physics or Radio Engineering as a special subject. Candidates who qualify on the results of the written part of the examination will be summoned for personality test.
• Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.

Fee: Rs.50/- for the candidates applying Online and Rs.100/- for the candidates applying Offline (for remote area candidates only) through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. SC/ST/Female candidates are exempted from payment (OBC candidates required to pay full fee).

How To Apply:  Apply Online at UPSC website upto 07/02/2011 at UPSC website http://upsconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php. Only those candidates who are in remore difficult areas can apply offline. Those who wants to apply Offline, must apply in the Common Application Form which can be purchased from the designated Post Officers throughout the country by paying cash Rs.20.  This offline application must reach the "Controller of Examinations, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post/ Courier on or before the 14/02/2011.

Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc. at the website of the UPSC at  http://upsc.gov.in/ or  see Employment News dated 08/01/2011.

Delphi Placement Paper Pattern

 Delphi Placement Paper Pattern

Directions: For questions 1 to 5. Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are four lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence a whole.

Though science is often imagined as a _______ exploration of external reality, scientists are no different from anyone else: they are ______ human beings enmeshed in a web of personal and social circumstances.
a) fervent..vulnerable b) neutral..rational

c) painstaking..careless d) disinterested..passionate

Among the many ______ of the project, expense cannot be numbered; the goals of the project promoters can be achieved with impressive ______.
a) highlights..efficiency b) features..savings

c) disadvantages..innovation d) defects..economy

A leading chemist believes that many scientists have difficulty with stereochemistry because much of the relevant nomenclature is ______ in that it combines concepts that should be kept ______.
a) obscure..interrelated b) impressive..discrete

c) subtle..inviolate d) descriptive..seperate

The old man could not have been accused of ______ his affection; his conduct towards the child betrayed his ______ her.
a) lavishing..fondness for b) sparing..tolerance of

c) rationing..antipathy for d) stinting..adoration of

Many of the earliest colonial houses that are still standing have been so modified and enlarged that the ______ design is no longer ______.
a) pertinent..relevant b) initial..discriminable

c) embellished..attractive d) appropriate..applicable

Directions: For questions 6 to 10. In each of the following question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

MISER : THRIFT
a) performer : artistry b) chauvinist : patriotism

c) mimic : ridicule d) politician : compromise

VOTING : ROLL CALL
a) termination : cloture b) amendment : constitution

c) majority : concession d) quorum : filibuster

ARTICULATE : CLEARLY
a) orate : strongly b) shout : loudly

c) lecture : willfully d) malign : incoherently

TALON : EAGLE
a) fang : snake b) hoof : horse

c) claw : panther d) quill : porcupine

INSULIN : PANCREAS
a) bile : liver b) menthol : eucalyptus

c) oxygen : heart d) honey : bee

Directions : For questions from 11 to 15. Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by four lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in the capital letters.

VAGUE
a) expressive b) Felicitous c) well-defined d)nearly perfect

FOCUS
a) disappear b) disperse c) link d) activate

PROLOGUE
a) soliloquy b) trilogy c) analogue d) epilogue

DISARM
a) hold close b) put on guard c) challenge d) entertain

INFLATE
a) converge b) inhibit c) audit d)minimize

Q must be featured on the day immediately before or immediately after the day on which N is featured.

If N is to be featured on Thursday, the earliest day on which R can be featured is
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Friday

If S is to be featured on Friday, M must be featured on
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Thursday

If Q is to be featured on Thursday, the latest day on which M can be featured is
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Friday

Which of the following vocalist can be featured on Monday?
a) N b) P c) Q d) S

If S is to be featured on Thursday, which of the following is true?
a) M must be featured on Wednesday b) N must be featured on Saturday c) Q must be featured exactly two days after R is featured

d) R must be featured on Wednesday

If S is to be featured on Friday, what is the total number of acceptable schedules available to the manager?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Directions: For Question 28 to 30. Each Question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question, select the best answer choice given.

Questions

An instrument has exactly six keys, each sounding a different note. The notes are K, L, M, N, O and P. Playing this instrument involves playing successive chords; each consisting of three of the notes produced s

simultaneously;

Notes K and N can only be produced simultaneously. Notes L cannot be produced simultaneously with note O. a chord can neither be the same as the one immediately is nor be the same as the one immediately after it.

Each of the following is an acceptable chord EXCEPT
a) KLP b) KMN c) KNP d) LMP e) MOP

29.Chord LMP could be immediately followed by each of the following chords EXCEPT

a) KLN b) KMN c) KNP d) LMP e) MOP

Which of the following pairs of notes can be played simultaneously with K to produce an acceptable chord?
a) LM b) LO c) LP d) MN e) OP

If both filling and emptying pipes of a pool are open, the pool fills in 10 hours. If just the filling pipes are open, the pool fills in 4 hours. How many hours does it take to empty the pool if just the emptying pipes are open
a) more than 5 but less than 6 b) exactly 5 c) more than 6 d) exactly 6

a cube has an edge of 4, if the cube is split into cubes with edges of 2, what is the total surface area of the smaller cubes ?
a) 32 b) 64 c) 96 d) 192

a man traveled along a straight road from a town P to town Q at a uniform rate of 30 miles/hour, he then returned at a uniform rate of 60 miles/hour. What was his average rate for the round trip in miles/hour?
a) 35 b) 38 c) 40 d) 45

Exactly how many degrees are there between the hands of a clock at 3:40 pm
a) 110 b) 120 c) 130 d) 140

a man walked diagonally across a square plot. What was the percent saved by not walking along the edges?
a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 30

A gallon of oil is poured to a cubical container 7 inches on an edge. About how high in inches does the oil rise in the container? (I gallon = 231 cubic inches)
a) 3.8 b) 4.2 c) 4.7 d) 5.2

the time allowed for completing a certain piece of work is 40 days. By extending the time by 10 days we find that 25 fewer man will be needed. How many men are required to finish the work in 40 days?
a) 115 b) 125 c) 135 d) 145

A whistle blows every 14 minutes and a bell rings every 12 minutes. If the whistle and bell both sound together at 12 :00 noon, at what time, afternoon, will they first sound together again ?
a) 2:48 b) 2:24 c) 1:54 d) 1:24

A truck can hold 3 cubic yards of sand. If a cubic foot of a sand weighs 80 pounds, the weight of the truck load of sand in pounds is
a) 240 b) 270 c) 2160 d) 6480

A ship sails 60 miles south, 90 miles east and 60 miles south again. How many miles is it from its starting point ?
a) 120 b) 135 c) 150 d) 160

41. The formula h= 16t2 represents the distance h; infeet, that an object falls from rest after 1 seconds. In how many seconds will an object fall 400 ft.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

Paper: Delphi Placement Paper ( Word & Phrases)

Paper: Delphi Placement Paper ( Word & Phrases)

Directions: For questions 1 to 5. Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are four lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence a whole.

1.Though science is often imagined as a _______ exploration of external reality, scientists are no different from anyone else: they are ______ human beings enmeshed in a web of personal and social circumstances.
a) fervent..vulnerable b) neutral..rational c) painstaking..careless d) disinterested..passionate

2. Among the many ______ of the project, expense cannot be numbered; the goals of the project promoters can be achieved with impressive ______.
a) highlights..efficiency b) features..savings c) disadvantages..innovation d) defects..economy

3.A leading chemist believes that many scientists have difficulty with stereochemistry because much of the relevant nomenclature is ______ in that it combines concepts that should be kept ______.
a) obscure..interrelated b) impressive..discrete c) subtle..inviolate d) descriptive..seperate

4.The old man could not have been accused of ______ his affection; his conduct towards the child betrayed his ______ her.
a) lavishing..fondness for b) sparing..tolerance of c) rationing..antipathy for d) stinting..adoration of

5.Many of the earliest colonial houses that are still standing have been so modified and enlarged that the ______ design is no longer ______.
a) pertinent..relevant b) initial..discriminable c) embellished..attractive d) appropriate..applicable

Directions: For questions 6 to 10. In each of the following question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four lettered pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

6.MISER : THRIFT
a) performer : artistry b) chauvinist : patriotism

c) mimic : ridicule d) politician : compromise

7. VOTING : ROLL CALL
a) termination : cloture b) amendment : constitution

c) majority : concession d) quorum : filibuster

8. ARTICULATE : CLEARLY
a) orate : strongly b) shout : loudly

c) lecture : willfully d) malign : incoherently

9. TALON : EAGLE
a) fang : snake b) hoof : horse

c) claw : panther d) quill : porcupine

10. INSULIN : PANCREAS
a) bile : liver b) menthol : eucalyptus

c) oxygen : heart d) honey : bee

Directions : For questions from 11 to 15. Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters, followed by four lettered words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in the capital letters.

11. VAGUE
a) expressive b) Felicitous c) well-defined d)nearly perfect

12. FOCUS
a) disappear b) disperse c) link d) activate

13. PROLOGUE
a) soliloquy b) trilogy c) analogue d) epilogue

14. DISARM
a) hold close b) put on guard c) challenge d) entertain

15. INFLATE
a) converge b) inhibit c) audit d)minimize

In a telecommunication – cable assembly plant, cables are assembled by twisting plastic – coated wires together. There are wires of exactly six different solid colors – red, yellow, violet, green, white and black. Wires must be assembled into single cable according the following rules.

a. Each cable must contain at least three wires and wires of at least three different colors.

b. At most two wires in a single cable can be black

c. At most two wires in a single cable can be white

d. There can be at most one wire of each of the other colors in a single cable

e. If one wire is red, then one wire must be yellow.

f. If one wire is violet, then no wire can be green.

16. Which of the following could be the complete set of wires in an acceptable cable?
a. A green wire, a white wire and a violet wire
b. A violet wire, a black wire and white wires
c. A red wire, a black wire and a green wire
d. A yellow wire and exactly two black wires

17. If exactly one black wire and exactly one white wire are used in an assembled cable, which of the following must be true
a. the cable contains no more than five wires
b. the cable contains exactly six wires
c. the cable contains a yellow wire
d. the cable does not contain a red wire

18. The maximum number of wires that can be used in an acceptable is
a) 8 b) 7 c) 6 d) 4

19. If a white wire and a violet wire must be among the wires choose for a particular cable, any of the following pairs of wires could complete the cable except a
a. black wire and a second white wire
b. yellow wire and second white wire
c. yellow wire and a black wire
d. red wire and a black wire

20. If an assembled cable consists of five wires, each a different colour, it could be true that a colour not used is
a) Black b) White c) Green d) Red

21. If there is an additional requirement that violet wire must be used, if yellow is used, which of the following must be true?
a. No cable contains fewer than six wires
b. No cable contains more than five wires
c. Green is never used if red is used
d. Red is always used if violet is used

Directions:

The manager of a radio program is going to future six Vocalists – M,N,P,Q,R and S – on an half-an-hour radio show during the course of one week. She will feature one vocalist on the show each day from Monday through Saturday. The manager must schedule the vocalists for the show according to the following conditions.

M must be featured earlier in the week than R

P must be featured on Tuesday

Q must be featured on the day immediately before or immediately after the day on which N is featured.

22. If N is to be featured on Thursday, the earliest day on which R can be featured is
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Friday

23. If S is to be featured on Friday, M must be featured on
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Thursday

24. If Q is to be featured on Thursday, the latest day on which M can be featured is
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Friday

25. Which of the following vocalist can be featured on Monday?
a) N b) P c) Q d) S

26. If S is to be featured on Thursday, which of the following is true?
a) M must be featured on Wednesday b) N must be featured on Saturday c) Q must be featured exactly two days after R is featured d) R must be featured on Wednesday

27. If S is to be featured on Friday, what is the total number of acceptable schedules available to the manager?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Directions: For Question 28 to 30. Each Question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question, select the best answer choice given.

Questions:

An instrument has exactly six keys, each sounding a different note. The notes are K, L, M, N, O and P. Playing this instrument involves playing successive chords; each consisting of three of the notes produced simultaneously;

Notes K and N can only be produced simultaneously. Notes L cannot be produced simultaneously with note O. a chord can neither be the same as the one immediately is nor be the same as the one immediately after it.

28.Each of the following is an acceptable chord EXCEPT
a) KLP b) KMN c) KNP d) LMP e) MOP

29.Chord LMP could be immediately followed by each of the following chords EXCEPT

a) KLN b) KMN c) KNP d) LMP e) MOP

30. Which of the following pairs of notes can be played simultaneously with K to produce an acceptable chord?
a) LM b) LO c) LP d) MN e) OP

31. If both filling and emptying pipes of a pool are open, the pool fills in 10 hours. If just the filling pipes are open, the pool fills in 4 hours. How many hours does it take to empty the pool if just the emptying pipes are open
a) more than 5 but less than 6 b) exactly 5 c) more than 6 d) exactly 6

32. a cube has an edge of 4, if the cube is split into cubes with edges of 2, what is the total surface area of the smaller cubes ?
a) 32 b) 64 c) 96 d) 192

33. a man traveled along a straight road from a town P to town Q at a uniform rate of 30 miles/hour, he then returned at a uniform rate of 60 miles/hour. What was his average rate for the round trip in miles/hour?
a) 35 b) 38 c) 40 d) 45

34. Exactly how many degrees are there between the hands of a clock at 3:40 pm
a) 110 b) 120 c) 130 d) 140

35.a man walked diagonally across a square plot. What was the percent saved by not walking along the edges?
a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 30

36. A gallon of oil is poured to a cubical container 7 inches on an edge. About how high in inches does the oil rise in the container? (I gallon = 231 cubic inches)
a) 3.8 b) 4.2 c) 4.7 d) 5.2

37. the time allowed for completing a certain piece of work is 40 days. By extending the time by 10 days we find that 25 fewer man will be needed. How many men are required to finish the work in 40 days?
a) 115 b) 125 c) 135 d) 145

38. A whistle blows every 14 minutes and a bell rings every 12 minutes. If the whistle and bell both sound together at 12 :00 noon, at what time, afternoon, will they first sound together again ?
a) 2:48 b) 2:24 c) 1:54 d) 1:24

39. A truck can hold 3 cubic yards of sand. If a cubic foot of a sand weighs 80 pounds, the weight of the truck load of sand in pounds is
a) 240 b) 270 c) 2160 d) 6480

40. A ship sails 60 miles south, 90 miles east and 60 miles south again. How many miles is it from its starting point ?
a) 120 b) 135 c) 150 d) 160

41. The formula h= 16t2 represents the distance h; infeet, that an object falls from rest after 1 seconds. In how many seconds will an object fall 400 ft.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

Delphi Placement Paper ( Technical)

1.machine tool drives are generally given in:

a) arithmetic progression b)geometric progression
c) harmonic progression d)none of the above

2.finite element analysis is used in

a) accurate measurement b)stress analysis
c)metallurgy d)none of the above

3.coolant is generally not used while machining

a) low carbon steel b)high carbon steel
c) cast iron d)alloy steel

4.Machinability of steel is improved by the presence of

a)nickel b)tungsten
c)sulphur d)chromium

5.negative rake angle

a)increases cutting force b)decreases cutting force
c)no effect on cutting force d)none of the above

6.the hardest tool material used is

a)coated carbide b)high speed steel
c)boron nitride d)diamond

7.stick slip phenomenon is associated with

a)spindle rotation b)belt drives
c)slide movement d)none of the above

8.Gear hobbing is

a)shaping process b)generating process
c)forming process

9.cutting speed of H.S.S tools while cutting low carbon steel

a)40m/min b)250m/min
c)500m/min d)none

10.cutting speed of carbide tools while cutting low carbon steel

a)40m/min b)250m/min
c)500m/min d)80m/min

11.straightness that can be achieved over a length of 300mm by grinding

a).005 -.01mm b)0.1-0.2mm
c)0.05-0.1mm d)0.5-0.8mm

12.the circularity that can be achieved by finish turning on a standard centre lathe is

a)0.005-0.008mm b)0.0-0.08mm
c)0.1-0.2mm d)0.2-0.3mm

13.honing can correct

a)oviality b)taper
c)straightness of bore d)axial curvature

14.Machine tool sliding surfaces are finish matched by

a)surface grinding b)fine milling
c)slide way grinding d)scraping

15.Close sliding fit is given by

a)H7/g6 b)H7/h6
c)H9/p6 d)H7/k6

16.60H6 can be achieved by

a)turning b)boring
c)drilling d)internal grinding

17.The displacement accuracy which can be achieved on a jig boring machine

a)5/µm b)50/µm c)100/µm

18.Hardness value in cast iron can be measured in

a)shore b)BHN c)Rockwell d)none

19.Auto collimator is used to measure

a)dia upto 0.001mm b)lengths
c)straightness d)Involute error

20.Surface finish is measured by

a)comparator b)planograph
c)sprit level d)none

21.The outside diameter of a 20 teeth 3 module gear is

a)54 b)60 c)63 d)70

22.Herring bone gear is used for

a)High speed transmission b)noise free transmission
c)Better load transmission d)none

23.In a right angle transmission by helical gears, the hand of the helix of the gears are

a)same b)opposite c)Immaterial d)none

24.Worm drive is always self-locking

a)True b)false

25.Most hydrostatic bearings normally work under

a)constant flow system b)constant pressure system
c)constant temperature system d)constant volume system

26.Ball bearings are not generally used in crank shafts of automobiles because

a)of high cost b)of high speed c)cannot be assembled d)none

27.Bronze is used in journal bearings essential to

a)reduce friction b)reduce heat
c)eliminate oxidization d)eliminate seizing

28.The spindle of high precision cylindrical grinder is mounted on

a)Ball bearing b)Taper roller bearing
c)Hydrostatic bronze bearing d)needle bearing

29.To accelerate the flow of gases

a)nozzle is used b)diffuser is used
c)dia of pipe to increased d)none of these will help

30.Hydraulic accumulator

a)acts as an accumulator b)acts as a storage for hydraulic energy
c)acts as a pressure relief d)none

31.When ice which is floating in water, melts, does the level to water

a)go up b)go down c)remain the same.

32.Hammer blow in pipe happens due to

a)friction in pipes b)change in temperature
c)stoppage of flow d)none

33.Temperature rise in fluid flow causes

a)reduction in viscosity b)increase in viscosity c)no effect

34.Ratio between velocity of sound and velocity of any object is

a)prandtl number b)Reynolds number
c)avagadro's number d)mach number

35.Cavitaion effect in flow occurs due to

a)excess pressure b)excess temperature
c)excess flow d)none

36.In electrical locomotives ultimate transmission is by

a)AC Motor b)DC Shunt Motor
c)DC Series Motor d)Synchronous motor

37.Four beams of identical sections and lengths are made of cast iron, aluminium,steel and hardened steel. The beams are fixed at both ends; for a uniformly distributed load which will deflect least

a)cast iron b)aluminium c)steel d)hardened steel

38 . Geneva mechanism is used for obtaining

a)Intermittent motion b)accelerating motion
c)continuous motion d)none

39.Corioles component is associated with

a)Displacement b)acceleration
c)velocity d)none

40.Effect of increase of outside diameter of a helical compression spring on its rigidity is

a)increased rigidity b)decreased rigidity
c)no effect d)dry friction

41.Jominey curve is related to the study of

a)hydraulics b)thermodynamics
c)electrical d)none

42.TTT diagram is used in

a)surface finish b)heat treatment
c)stress analysis d)thermodynamics

43.Mehanite is the name given to a type of

a)alloy steel b)granite
c)nodular cast iron d)cast iron

44.Unwanted impurity in molten aluminium is

a)oxygen b)carbon dioxide
c)nitrogen d)hydrogen

45.Hardness in steel is a s a result of

a)martensitic structure b)pearlitic structure
c)leduburetic structure d)austenitic structure


46.piston of an IC engine is made out of

a)cast iron b)steel casting c)beryllium alloy d)aluminium alloy

47. The crank shaft of a 300 HP IC engine is

a)hot forged b)shell moulded

c)cold forged d)obtained through investment casting

48. A 6kg ball is suspended from two wires of equal length. The angle between the wires is 90 degrees. What is the tension in each wire?

49. A 523 kg experimental rocked sted can be accelerated from rest to 1602 km/h in 1.82s. what net force is required?

4.6X106N
4.6X105N
1.6X106N
1.3X105N

50. A force that averages 984N is applied to a 0.42kg steel ball moving at 13.8 m/s by a collision that lasts 0.027s. if the force is in a direction opposite to the initial velocity of the ball, what is the final speed of the ball?

51. a stone initially at rest is dropped over the edge of a very tall building. Taking g as 10m/s2 , what was the change in the speed of the stone building during the 4th second?

10m/s
30m/s
15m/s
40m/s

52. how long will it take a 2000w motor to lift a 320kg container vertically upwards for 26m?(g = 9.8m/s2)

53. a collision between two isolated items will in generally conserve
a. the total kinetic energy and the total momentum of the system
b. the total kinetic energy but not the total momentum of the system
c. the total momentum but not the total kinetic energy of the system
d. the momentum of each object
what is the force exerted on a submarine window of 2m2 area, if the submarine is at a depth of 2km below the surface?(the density of sea water is 1.03X103 kg/m3)

54. How many of the following statements are true:
a. the buoyant force on a body depends on the shape of the body
b. the buoyant force on a body always acts in the same direction
c. the buoyant force on a body depends on the mass of the body
d. the buoyant force on a body depends on the density of the fluid surrounding the body

55. A body partially floats with 2/3rds of its volume under the surface of a fluid. If the density of the fluid is X kg/m3, what is the density of the body?

a)3/2 X kg/m3 b)2/3 X kg/m3
c)14.7 X kg/m3 d)0.15 X kg/m3

56. how many atoms are present in a mole of CH4 ?
(avagadro's number = 6.023X1023 /mole)

a) 1.2X1024
b) 3.01X1024
c) 1.2X1023
d) 6.023X1023

57. A power station generates 500MW of power and exhausts 800MW as waste heat into the environment. What is the efficiency of the power station?

a) 61.5%
b) 38.5%
c) 62.5%
d) 23%